Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 01:49
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Should India conduct another air strike to attack Pakistan over the Pahalgam attack?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
How old is planet Earth? Is it 4.5 billion years old or 6,000 years old?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.